Re: Return after buyer has worn and damaged item?
"the buyer messages me saying he has ripped the shoe"
This damage could be due to a defective shoe, we don't know exactly what the buyer messaged the op. Certainly that line does not imply the liability lies with the buyer. You have just assumed that.
If i bought some shoes that ripped after 2 weeks, i would take them back under the sale of goods act. As they are clearly not fit for purpose.
With regards to an ebay rep saying the buyer has no case.... You are showing your naivity if you believe what one front line rep says.
Cases are mostly automatic. They follow the same procedure with set rules, so we know the outcome. If you can get a real ebay rep to look at the case, then yes the rules can be over ridden with evidence.
Just to add, if you're getting hundreds of item not as described claims (and they are just the ones you have won with additional evidence right?) then you may wish to reevaluate your selling practices. I dread to think how many overall IND cases you have. Unless of course you just lied....to try and give your arguement more credibility. I
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